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5.0 out of 5 stars
Yet Another Hightly Accurate & Fluid Translation by the CBT!, May 9, 2006
This review is from: TNIV Holy Bible (Hardcover)
Why is the TNIV a more accurate translation?
When you think of purchasing a Bible translation, take these into serious consideration:
(1) This is the Word of God.
(2) It is to instruct your daily living and train you in righteousness.
(3) You have to understand the Word to "rightly divide it!"
(4) God is serious and so are His Words.
(5) Your spiritual maturity depends on your understanding!
No translation is perfect; ALL translations have errors. Yes, the Word of God is inerrant! But inerrancy is a theologically technical definition that applies only to the "original handwritten" autographs by the Biblical authors. Fact - no autographs have been discovered as of current. Thus, a translation is not inerrant it is a tool, a translation! The vast majority of Bible translations are very accurate to their source manuscripts. English translations are completely trustworthy as the Word of God. Most general readers, often lack sufficient knowledge concerning the transitional nature of Scripture (how it came from Jesus, the Biblical authors and moved from the autographs to manuscript copies) and the textual criticism tools used by scholars to produce an English vernacular translation.
Here is some manuscript textual criticism to help readers appreciate the textual improvements of the TNIV over other translations:
[1 Samuel 8:16]
KJV: "And he will take ... goodliest young men, and your asses, and put them to his work."
ESV: "He will take... the best of your young men and your donkeys"
They footnoted: cattle
TNIV: "He will take...the best of your cattle and donkeys"
Which is correct? Why does the ESV footnote cattle?
The phrase `your cattle' is the rendering that comes from the Septuagint. The Septuagint is a Greek translation of the OT made in Egypt around 250-150 B.C. The ESV takes "young men" from the medieval Hebrew text. Frankly, the linking of "young men" and "donkeys" is strange to scholars. The word for "young men" in Hebrew is bhrykm. The word for "your cattle" is bqrykm. In Hebrew, they are verbally about as similar as "Television" and "Telephone". This is how scholars know this is not an oral transmission error; they are too dissimilar orally! This was a coping error! In this textual variant, a single letter changed the meaning of the word. The Septuagint was translated much earlier and retained the "your cattle." This is an example of how textual variants are researched and compared to obtain the `original' intended autograph reading. Yet the ESV & KJV translators choose to use a poor source manuscript over a more accurate one, why?
[Mark 1:2] {2}
KJV: "As it is written in the prophets..."
ESV: "As it is written in Isaiah the prophet..."
Footnotes: some manuscripts in the prophets?
TNIV: "As it is written in Isaiah the prophet..."
Which is right? Why is there a difference? Why does the ESV footnote: in the prophets?
The TNIV has used the best and earliest manuscripts as a source text, thus, "Isaiah the prophet!" The KJV translation committee made use of what they had at the time, flawed manuscripts. The ESV translation committee also got this one mostly right! So what is wrong with footnoting in the prophets? All of the second century translations (Latin, Coptic and Syriac) have, "Isaiah the prophet!" However, there is one manuscript before the ninth century, which reads "in the Prophets..." The citation that Mark is using is a combination of Malachi 3:1 and Isaiah 40:3. It seems that this one copyist choose to "correct" Mark's original text to make it more precise! Sadly, the ESV included a footnote referencing an inaccurate manuscript as a legitimate source translation. The Committee on Bible Translation obviously rejected this one copyist's inaccuracy! I wish the ESV had done the same. The KJV was at the mercy of its errored source manuscripts.
[1 Corinthians 7:36] {3}
KJV: "But if any man think that he behaveth himself uncomely toward his virgin, if she pass the flower of her age, and need so require, let him do what he will, he sinneth not: let them marry."
ESV: "If anyone thinks that he is not behaving properly toward his betrothed..."
Footnotes: virgin
TNIV: "If anyone is worried that he might not be acting honorably toward the virgin he is engaged to..."
What was the Apostle Paul intending to say?
ESV weaknesses: (1) It uses a technical word "betrothed" thus it doesn't resonate with an American culture; (2) The gender of the betrothed can only be determined from the preceding verses, 37 & 38; (3) Sadly, they footnoted "virgin" instead of keeping it with the text?
KJV weaknesses: (1) overly wordy, and it does not resonate with American culture; (2) "if she pass the flower of her age" while beautiful it leaves a lot up to dubious interpretation, this is very ambiguous and misses Paul's intended meaning.
[1 Corinthians 6:20] {4}
KJV: "... therefore glorify God in your body, and in your spirit, which are God's."
ESV: "So glorify God in your body."
TNIV: "Therefore honor God with your bodies."
What happened? Which is right?
This example illustrates that copyist on occasion have made changes to the original text for theological reasons! The words, "and in your spirit, which are God's" are found in most of the late Medieval Greek manuscripts. However this phrase does not appear in any of the early Greek evidence! Nor does it appear in the Latin-speaking church in the West!
Sadly translations like the NKJV and HCSB included these later theological additions to their translations. The KJV version was again at the mercy of its source manuscripts. The ESV did a pretty good job except "in" doesn't really capture the meaning of "with" very well.
Had this phrase been included in The Apostle Paul's original it is impossible to explain how/why it would have been left out so early and so often. Then magically reappear in later manuscripts?
DO YOU KNOW THE HISTORY OF YOUR VERNACULAR TRANSLATION? {5}
HOW DID WE GET OUR ENGLISH BIBLES?
"My concern is that some readers, whether they are educated or not, will realize that this translation does not agree with what they are accustomed to and will react against me with abusive language, calling me an evil person and a forger for having the audacity to add anything to the ancient text, as though I were trying to make changes or corrections to it." -Jerome 4th century A.D. concerning the Latin Vulgate
Jerome was commissioned by Pope Damasus. His job was to provide a revision of the Old Latin translation of the Bible. Jerome's concerns were justified! He, in fact, he received a great deal of criticism that followed him his entire life; yet, the version Jerome produced (the Vulgate) became the standard Bible of the Western church for... a thousand years!
It seems that history has recorded many occasions of rejection and outrage over translations! The English Bible is no different. It is ironic that given the harsh criticism Jerome received for even producing the Vulgate, that later Jerome's followers would have an extreme outcry against another vernacular translation. It would seem unbelievable? To Jerome's followers the Vulgate was viewed as the "real" Bible and they did have an extreme outcry against other vernacular translation attempts.
Other English translations followed after the Vulgate. The 1st English translation of the entire Bible was completed in 1382 under the direction of John Wycliffe. Wycliffe, an Oxford theologian, was protected from harm due to his influence and position. Wycliffe's work was denounced and his translation was condemned. However... Wycliffe's followers were not so lucky, many were: harassed, imprisoned and... burned at the stake by ignorant self-righteous zealots! Because of Wycliffe's controversial work in 1408, a synod was established by clergy, which forbid anyone to translate into the vernacular or read a vernacular translation without prior church approval. "Wycliffe was referred to as the, `great, arch-heretic' who undertook `of a malicious purpose' to translation the Bible into English and `purposely corrupted the holy text.'"
William Tyndale has the distinguished honor to be the first to produce a printed English New Testament. It was the first English translation directly from the Greek. However, the 1408 synod rules still applied and Tyndale had to flee England. Tyndale's work was published in 1526 and copies were smuggled back into England. Tyndale's opponents followed him relentlessly. Tyndale was kidnapped in 1535. He was imprisoned and a year later executed... and his body burned, just to make sure!
Wycliffe, Tyndale and others help bring a growing acceptance of vernacular English translations.
Year 1539- The Great Bible
Year 1560- The Geneva Bible (Favored by the Puritans), (Had roots in Tyndale's work)
Year 1568 - The Bishop's Bible (official Bible of the Church of England) revision of the Great Bible
Year 1604- King James commissions a translation of the Bible
Year 1611- forty-seven leading British scholars translated in seven years the King James Bible.
However the King James Bible was not above criticism! The pilgrims refused to allow the new version on the Mayflower! One of the leading scholars of the day, Hugh Broughton wrote this regarding the KJV: "Tell His Majesty that I had rather be rent in pieces with wild horses, than any such translation by my consent should be urged upon poor churches... The new edition crosseth me. I require it to be burnt"
The King James translators expected such...
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