Since we are now within about 500 posts of moving on to this discussion, I just thought I would save my dear friend, Kevin Bold, all the time required to copy and paste his original post for the eighth time...
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In our last episode, I (Kevin Bold) gave some of the arguments against Mary's sinlessness:
1) Romans 3:23 -- doesn't apply to Mary
2) Infinite Regress of Sinless Grannies -- patently silly.
3) "It's not in the Bible" -- doesn't have to be, although God's holiness, sinners' inability to withstand God's glory, and OT Marian typology, all of which are in Scripture, point to it.
4) "Only Catholics believe it." -- That's an argument?
5) "Catholics didn't believe it until 1854." -- History proves otherwise.
Then I found some more:
6) Luke 1:47 -- God saved Mary from sin by keeping sin from entering her when she was conceived. Mary then continued, eventually saying, "(F)or he who is mighty has done great things for me, and holy is his name" (Luke 1:49).
7) Luke 2:22-24: Mary and Joseph offered two turtledoves because a woman who'd had a baby was RITUALLY UNCLEAN. Having a baby is NOT a sin (aborting one is).
8) The Church Fathers weren't in unanimity on the matter, or didn't think so: Oh, puh-LEEZ give me a break!
Did I leave anything out this time?
ADDENDA: Yes, someone came up with something not included above:
"(I)f you knew how a female body nourishes a baby, you'd know that no blood is mingled."
Sin enters the child at the moment of conception (Ps 51:5), inside the mother's womb. "No intermingling of blood" doesn't matter. God wouldn't want to be inside a sinner anymore than the _shekinah_ would remain inside a defiled temple (as if a placenta would stop sin, anyway).
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Kevin, got your back! Feel free to continue the squabble...
Grace and Peace, Brother,
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