With all the discussion about 2nd Amendment rights, this question seems to have gone by the wayside. Odd, because it's the most profound question that arises from the massacre.
Why did Adam Lanza premeditate and then carry out his murders with the level of cruelty that he did?
Theories range from rage against his mother to the effect of psychiatric medication. The fact that he was not functioning as a normal adult is obvious and is indicated by the nature of his crime. It reeks of psychosis.
However there is a huge number of dysfunctional, if not psychotic, young men, living with their parents in this country, undergoing some form of pharmacological intervention, with access to firearms. If these were the only reasons we'd see a massacre every week.
What made Lanza different?
Rather then enveloping this horror in, frankly speaking, paranoia about the loss of rights, shouldn't we try to figure this thing out?